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User Info: kingschosen

kingschosen
8 years ago#11
Diranosaur posted...
kingschosen posted...
Diranosaur posted...
Wouldn't this rule be the same today?

This is what I mean by taking my comment out of context. I blatantly made it clear as to whom the directions were for.

The relevance is up for debate. It doesn't specify a certain period of time, just that this is the law of God considering the subject. Yes, it does apply to the Jews only, but not a particular case.


No, it's really not up for debate. The context of the scripture is written for the Jews by the Jews. When you interpret scripture you also have to interpret context. That's not to say the OT is irrelevant at all... not in the least. We use it as a background and forerunner for the teachings of Christ, but we cannot blindly apply specific scriptures that were not written for anyone else except the Jews at that point in time.

User Info: AtomicItalian

AtomicItalian
8 years ago#12
Indeed. Some verses are perscriptive (they tell use what to do) others are descriptive (they tell us what happened).

The verses in Deut are the latter.
This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down his life for us. And we ought to lay down our lives for our brothers. 1 John 3:16

User Info: Diranosaur

Diranosaur
8 years ago#13
AtomicItalian posted...
Indeed. Some verses are perscriptive (they tell use what to do) others are descriptive (they tell us what happened).

The verses in Deut are the latter.


If the verses in Deut are the latter, what's up with stuff like Deut 5:17?
My folk band - http://barfota.bandcamp.com/

User Info: Diranosaur

Diranosaur
8 years ago#14
kingschosen posted...
No, it's really not up for debate. The context of the scripture is written for the Jews by the Jews. When you interpret scripture you also have to interpret context. That's not to say the OT is irrelevant at all... not in the least. We use it as a background and forerunner for the teachings of Christ, but we cannot blindly apply specific scriptures that were not written for anyone else except the Jews at that point in time.

It doesn't state that it's just for that time, so how can you be sure? What about the verses saying that homosexuality is wrong, were those also just for the people of that time, and not now?
My folk band - http://barfota.bandcamp.com/

User Info: kingschosen

kingschosen
8 years ago#15
Diranosaur posted...
AtomicItalian posted...
Indeed. Some verses are perscriptive (they tell use what to do) others are descriptive (they tell us what happened).

The verses in Deut are the latter.

If the verses in Deut are the latter, what's up with stuff like Deut 5:17?


Are you being intentionally contrary?

That was a commandment to the Jews to not murder.

User Info: AtomicItalian

AtomicItalian
8 years ago#16
Diranosaur posted...
AtomicItalian posted...
Indeed. Some verses are perscriptive (they tell use what to do) others are descriptive (they tell us what happened).

The verses in Deut are the latter.

If the verses in Deut are the latter, what's up with stuff like Deut 5:17?


Before I answer that, tell me what the book is about, who it's written to, when it was written, and what has lead up to that point in the book.

I'll encourage other people to hold off on answering you on this until you've provided an answer.
This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down his life for us. And we ought to lay down our lives for our brothers. 1 John 3:16

User Info: kingschosen

kingschosen
8 years ago#17
Diranosaur posted...
kingschosen posted...
No, it's really not up for debate. The context of the scripture is written for the Jews by the Jews. When you interpret scripture you also have to interpret context. That's not to say the OT is irrelevant at all... not in the least. We use it as a background and forerunner for the teachings of Christ, but we cannot blindly apply specific scriptures that were not written for anyone else except the Jews at that point in time.

It doesn't state that it's just for that time, so how can you be sure? What about the verses saying that homosexuality is wrong, were those also just for the people of that time, and not now?


They were written for the Jews... yes. Yes, it was specifically for them. I don't know how much clearer I can be. The OT scriptures stood as a foundation for the teachings of Christ.

During the life and after the death of Christ, the teachings were spread and written for not only Jews but also Gentiles.

User Info: Diranosaur

Diranosaur
8 years ago#18
kingschosen posted...
Are you being intentionally contrary?

That was a commandment to the Jews to not murder.


It was an answer to the statement that everything in Deut was descriptions of what happened and not what you should do.
My folk band - http://barfota.bandcamp.com/

User Info: AtomicItalian

AtomicItalian
8 years ago#19
King, don't give him anything else until he answers my question about Deuteronomy. You're letting him lead you with a carrot.
This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down his life for us. And we ought to lay down our lives for our brothers. 1 John 3:16

User Info: kingschosen

kingschosen
8 years ago#20
AtomicItalian posted...
King, don't give him anything else until he answers my question about Deuteronomy. You're letting him lead you with a carrot.

I was just about to post

"What does all of this have to do with my topic?"
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